iirc, there was talk for a while of adding either DXM
or ultra low dose naltrexone (ULD naltrexone) to tablets of, say, morphine
in order to stop the development of tolerance.
But if it's naloxone & not naltrexone, I'd say it's either there to help with constipation or to prevent abuse of the oxycodone
via injection. Perhaps there was a compassionate doctor who knew their patient had a recent history of IV opiate
abuse but was also in serious pain & had the pharmacy compound the oxy 'script with Narcan so it isn't injectable.
I couldn't tell you if the naloxone would be active via insufflation
. I know it's not a big deal with Suboxone
, but that's mostly because the bupe has a higher affinity for the receptors than the naloxone. As this isn't the case with oxycodone, I don't know...
Why doesn't the person in question just try taking one orally (provided they have a tolerance, of course - 80mg of oxycodone is nothing to sneeze at!)?