I just started 8mg daily suboxone
today. I was taking doses of 50mg morphine
IV at a time if it was around, and PO 500mg-700mg codeine
every day for quite a while. The ceiling doses of codeine ended up doing very little but kill a bit of pain and negate the sickness, so obviously IVing morphine was the way to get a solid nod.
All together I was taking an average of 120mg of morphine a day this year. (Codeine metabolizes to 10% morphine)
Before that I was taking more like 40mg morphine. And remember that my averages here are with an assumed 70-100% bioavailability, never eat morphine, like.
So last week I started on 10mg methadone
a day and that was a significant jump down from my usual dose, and after two or three days it started to take the edge off the sick.
I waited 48 hours to score 16 on the COWS and ate 4mg buprenorphine
half an hour ago.
At this point my sickness has subsided significantly and probably feels like a 40mg or so of morphine. Minus the joy of course since morphine makes me cum and suboxone obviously doesn't.
Because of the long half life, I can't say its quite as potent in effect as it actually is. I'm under the impression now that buprenorphine is more potent than diamorphine, or at least comparable.
Here's a good analogy like:
The potency of alprazolam
is 0.5mg to 10mg diazepam
. Now, clonazepam
is the same potency as alprazolam (0.5mg), but the half life of clonazepam is at average 30 or 40 hours. The half life of alprazolam is around 10 hours.
Because of this, 0.5mg of alprazolam is going to have a stronger effect than 0.5mg clonazepam.
Same idea with buprenorphine, more time = less effect.
Don't use that as justification for doubling up on doses though! The medicine is still as potent, it just feels lesser.
Just my input. Seriously though, bupe is more potent than scag innit?