Codeinphosphate

Discussion in 'Opiates & Opioids' started by bogumil, Mar 15, 2005.

  1. bogumil

    bogumil Gold Member

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    how much codeinphosphate do you need to get a buzz? i have just taken 100 mg and almost noeffect ... 30mg of the phosphate are about 22 mg codeine ...


    and has anyone ever tried to convert codeine to morphine? the recipe i know needs chloroformand pyridine. im not sure if its worth the work and money ...
     
  2. sunyata

    sunyata Gold Member

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    90mg usually gives Swim a good buzz, but it takes a while to manifest itself.Onset, one hour, fully developed after one and a half.


    Swimhasn't triedconverting codeine to morphine(other than in his body), but I suppose it is only worth the time and money if you have large quantities of codeine.
     
  3. bogumil

    bogumil Gold Member

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    i got a bang after about 120 mg c-phosphate.





    as for the amounts that is no problem to get about 30 gr. ...


    the way would be codeinphosphate -> codeinone -> morphine (80 %yield max.), right?
     
  4. bartleman

    bartleman Newbie

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    Ive recently starting doing Codeine ( 3 monthes ago)
    and im up to 300 mg and I find its a good buzz . I
    started at 60 mg for the very first time to make sure I
    wasnt allergic or anything then moved right to 200
    mg stayed there for around 1/2 a dozen times then
    250 for only a mere few times now im at 300 mg.
    Only problem I find with doing 300 is if I do
    ANYTHING active I tend to vomit just after it kicks in ..
    but I still keep the high for a good hour or 2. I only do
    200-250 when doing everyday activities
    (school/work) and 300 when at home bored .[​IMG] Edited by: bartleman
     
  5. allyourbase

    allyourbase Palladium Member

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    150 is the unit standard for analgesia, after full conversion it transers to just under 10 milligrams of morphine in the brain. while were on this subject, does anyone know of any ways to increase the potentcy of codiene phosphate? like the addition of an easily obtainable agonist/antagonist? or perhaps a nauseatingly simple reaction one perform to add more carriers?
     
  6. moldie

    moldie Newbie

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    If you have some pyridine it's not too difficult to demethylate your codeine to produce morphine.
     
  7. allyourbase

    allyourbase Palladium Member

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    what is pyradine? could you describe the process? not in graphic detail....just the basics. furthermore is codeine freebase orally active? whats the average smoked dosage of the freebase? is insufflation contraindicted?Edited by: allyourbase
     
  8. moldie

    moldie Newbie

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    "what is pyradine?"


    Pyradine is a heterocyclic aromatic tertiary amine. It kinda resembles benzene,ACH in the benzene ring is replaced with a nitrogen.


    "could you describe the process? not in graphic detail....just the basics."


    Without going into detail? This is essentially the well-known "homebake" method. You react pyridine with codeine freebase (making very sure everything is dry)until mixture becomes reddish in color, add dh20 and pour into sep funnel,make basic,and extract unreacted codeine with chloroform.Take the water layer, put it in a flask and adjust the ph until it's 9, filter the water layer through some filter paper and discard the brown crystals on the paper.Adjust the ph of the filtrate to 8.5 and vigourously rub the inside of the beaker with a stir rod (doesn't have to be glass, you could use a piece of wood if you wanted). At this point crystals will begin to form and you can recover them through vaccum filtration. That's as undetailed as I can make it. Edited by: moldie
     
  9. allyourbase

    allyourbase Palladium Member

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    thanks but I got the info of lycaeum. I should have checked around before asking stupid questions. it sounds like a fairly simple process so long as one has the equipment and a source of pyridine. what would happen if you did such a thing with dihydrocodeine? LMAO would you get dihydromorphine? a boy can dream [​IMG]
     
  10. gotxp

    gotxp Newbie

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    I believe it would work... cause its just turning the CH3-O- bond into a OH- bond... since in dihydrocodeine there is still the only one CH3-O- bond... it should demethylize to dihydromorphine... however, I amnt 100% sure.